Features of Amitryptiline overdose may include:

a)      Hypertonus

b)      Cardiac arrhythmias

c)      Non respiratory acidosis

d)      Respiratory depression

e)      Hypothermia


Drugs exhibiting zero order metabolism at clinical dosage include:-

a)      Phenytion

b)      Morphine

c)      d-tubocurarine

d)      ethyl alcohol

e)      lignocaine



a)      Is metabolised by the liver

b)      Crosses the placenta

c)      Half life is less than 1 hour

d)      Should be given by infusion for sustained effect

e)   Has a half life shorter than Naltrexone






The following are metabolised greater than 10%

a)      Nitrous oxide

b)      Xenon

c)      Isoflurane

d)      Halothane

e)      Enflurane


The following exert some of their actions by interference with calcium transport.

a)      Dantrolene

b)      Verapamil

c)      Halothane

d)      Adrenaline

e)      Nifedipine



a)      Competes with GABA at post-synaptic sites

b)      Has a half life of less than 1 hour

c)      Has an active metabolite

d)      Antagonises all benzodiazepines

e)   Can cause convulsions






The flowing substances are freely transferred across the placenta

a)      Insulin

b)      Thyroxine

c)      Ig G

d)      Warfarin

e)      Glucose


In patients receiving mono-amine oxidase inhibitors, adverse reactions may occur as a result of the ingestion or administration of

a)      Amitriptyline

b)      Allopurinol

c)    Isoprenaline

d)      Aspirin

e)    Pethidine


The administration of propranolol may cause

a)      A rise in cardiac output

b)      A fall in blood pressure

c)      Tachycardia

d)      Coronary vasodilatation

e)      Bronchodilatation






In a patient suffering from digoxin toxicity

a)      The ECG characteristically shows widespread RST segment depression

b)      Intravenous calcium gluconate may temporarily reverse the toxic effects on the myocardium

c)      Propranolol may be helpful in the treatment of heart block if present

d)      The plasma digoxin is a reliable guide to the severity.

e)   Digitalis antibodies are specific antidote


The following cause raised intracranial pressure

a)      Ketamine

b)      Hypercapnia

c)      Thiopentone

d)      Halothane

e)      Etomidate


The following cause an increase in intragastric pressure

a)      Suxamethoium

b)      Morphine

c)      Neostigmine

d)      Adrenaline

e)      Cimetidine






Aminoglycosides may cause

a)      Optic atrophy

b)      Tinnitus

c)      Renal failure

d)      Neuromuscular blockade

e)      Hepatic necrosis



a)      Causes increased noradrenaline release from nerve terminals

b)      Has bronchoconstrictor activity

c)      Increases systemic vascular resistance

d)      Reduces uterine blood flow

e)      Displays tachyphylaxis



a)      Increase peripheral utilization of glucose

b)      Are effective in patients with no endogenous insulin

c)      Are used in type 2 diabetes mellitus

d)      Can cause lactic acidosis

e)      Do not cause hypoglycaemia







a)      Can interfere with blood clotting

b)      Can cause renal failure

c)      Can cause anaphylaxis

d)      Decrease platelet aggregation

e)      Increase blood viscosity


The following can have zero order metabolism at therapeutic doses.

a)      Morphine

b)      Alcohol

c)      Phenytoin

d)      Sulphonylureas

e)      Tetracyclines



a)      Reverses apomorphine induced vomiting

b)      Causes alpha one blockade

c)      Can cause parkinsonism

d)      Can cause a catatonic state

e)      Acts only on peripheral dopamine receptors







a)      Decreases lower oesophageal  sphincter pressure

b)      Causes microsomal enzyme inhibition

c)      Is useful in treating acute anaphylaxis

d)      Decreases hepatic blood flow

e)      Decreases absorption of aspirin from the stomach



a)      Is less potent than diazepam

b)      Has a half life of 2 to 4 hours

c)      Is 90% plasma protein bound

d)   Is a useful drug in suspected intra-operative awareness

e)      Produces anaesthesia in one arm brain circulation time


Bio-availability can be influenced by

a)      First pass metabolism

b)      Gastric acidity

c)      Plasma protein binding

d)      Gastrointestinal mucosa metabolism

e)      Renal clearance






Thiazide diuretics may cause

a)      Hypokalaemic alkalosis

b)      Hyperuricaemia

c)      Increased blood glucose

d)      Hyperchloraemia

e)      Hyponatraemia



a)      Should not be mixed with acidic solutions

b)      Prolongs the clotting time but not the bleeding time

c)      Inactivates thrombin

d)      Can be reversed with vitamin K

e)      Has a half life of 30 mins at therapeutic doses


Severe salicylate poisoning

a)      Causes metabolic acidosis

b)      Decreases platelet count

c)      Decreases fibrinogen

d)      Causes Tinnitus

e)      Causes haemolysis






The following cross the blood brain barrier

a)      Atenolol

b)      Hyoscine

c)      Propranolol

d)      Tubocurare

e)   Glycopyrrolate



a)      Has a pKa of 5.1

b)      Has pentobarbitone as a metabolite

c)      Elimination T1/2 is less then methohexitone

d)      Volume of distribution is less than methohexitone

e)   Is a better induction agent than Propofol in patients with poor cardiac reserve.


The following have a T1/2 more than 24 hours

a)      Gelofusion

b)      Amiodarone

c)      Hetastarch

d)      Thiopentone

e)      diazepam







a)      Binds to alpha 1acid glycoptotein

b)      Has a greater volume of distribution then fentanyl

c)      Is metabolised by glucuronide conjugation

d)      Causes a decrease in heart rate

e)      Is antagonised by pentazocine



a)      Has an elimination T1/2 of 2 hours

b)      Irreversibly binds to the proton pump

c)      Has a bio-availability  that increases with its use

d)      Inhibits gastrin secretion

e)      Is a H2 anatagonist



a)      Increases cardiac output

b)      In high doses causes peripheral vasodilation

c)      Increases renal blood flow

d)      Causes increased ventricular excitability

e)      Increases splanchnic blood flow







a)      Competes with noradrenaline at binding sites

b)      May produce vomiting

c)      Depresses respiration

d)      Hypersensitivity is rare

e)      Is largely excreted unchanged in urine



a)      Vd= amount/ concentration

b)      Half life=rate of elimination / clearance

c)      CI=0.693*t1/2/vd

d)      Alcohol is eliminated by a  first order process

e)      Theophylline  exhibits zero order process elimination at low doses anD first order elimination at high does.


Prochlorperazine has the following properties.

a)      Anti-cholinergic

b)      Antibiotic

c)      Membrane stabilising

d)      Alpha blocking (Alpha 1)

e)      Anti-dopaminergic






The following are hepatotoxic

a)      Sodium valproate

b)      Isoflurane

c)      Amitriptyline

d)      Halothane

e)      Chlorpromazine


Alpha  1 acid glycoprotein is a major determinant of plasma  protein binding for:-

a)      Bupivacaine

b)      Lignocaine

c)      Methadone

d)      Amitriptyline

e)      Prednisolone



a)      May be used in Parkinson’s disease

b)      Ipratropium is better absorbed than atropine

c)      Cause hyperthermia

d)      Causes bradycardia before causing tachycardia

e)      Causes retention of urine







a)      May be induced by liquorice

b)      Is associated with renal tubular acidosis

c)      Is a feature of Familial Periodic paralysis

d)      May cause Hypotonia

e)   The maximum potassium that can be safely administered in an hour is 40 m mol


The following are characteristic features of salicylate poisoning:

a)      Loss of consciousness

b)      Respiratory acidosis

c)      Dry skin

d)      Dilated pupils

e)      Acute hepatic failure


Drugs used in terminating ventricular extrasystoles:-

a)      Mexiletine

b)      Disopyramide

c)      Verapamil

d)      Digoxin

e)      Amiodarone






Effect lasting for > 24 hrs after stoppage:-

a)      Amiodarone

b)      Methyldopa

c)      Clonidine

d)      Temazepam

e)   Alcohol


In patients on monoamine oxidase inhibitors, avoid:

a)      Halothane

b)      Pethidine

c)      Amphetamine

d)      Phenylephrine

e)      adrenaline



a)      Is a selective beta-1 antagonist

b)      Has alpha-1 antagonist activity

c)      Reduces bile excretion

d)      Reduce rennin output.

e)   Is a class-II antiarrythmic agent






pH reversibly affect the structure of:-

a)      Lignocaine

b)      Tubocurare

c)      Midazolam

d)      Atracurium

e)      Diazepam



a)      More potent than diazepam

b)      Elimination half-life 2-4 hours

c)      Induces sleep in one arm brain circulatic

d)      More then 90% protein bound

e)      Causes retrograde amnesia



a)      Is a monoquaternary compound

b)      Reduce BP by ganglion blockade

c)      Releases histamine

d)      Is  excreted in bile

e)      Blocks vagal tone






Sodium Nitroprusside toxicity;-

a)      Not dose related

b)      Due to  reduced liver rhodanase

c)      Due to cyanide

d)      Due to thiocyanate

e)      Antagonised by methylene blue


The following  block  calcium transport in muscle;

a)      Nicardipine

b)      Diltiazem

c)      Hydrallazine

d)      Dantrolene

e)      Gentamicin



a)      Is regulated by blood Calcium concentration

b)      Increases urinary phosphate excretion

c)      Increases bone resorbtion

d)      Is a globulin

e)      Can be produced by breast tumours







a)      Causes hypoglycaemia

b)      Increases uric acid excretion

c)      Decreases the hypertonicity of the renal medulla

d)      Cause hypokalaemia

e)      Act on the collecting duct


Propranolol causes;-

a)      Hypotension

b)      Hypoglycaemia

c)      Tachycardia

d)   Bronchospasm

e)      Decreased cardiac output.



a)      Is more sedative then hyoscine

b)      Reverses some of the effects of morphine

c)      Inhibits sweating

d)      In overdose causes hyperpyrexia

e)      Readily absorbed from stomach







a)      Has a boiling point of 52 ºC

b)      Has a vapour pressure of 240 mm Hg at 20 ºC or 32 kPa

c)      Has an oil / water solubility coefficient of about 220

d)      Has a blood/gas solubility coefficient of 2.5

e)      Has a MAC of about 0.7


Cerebral vascular resistance is decreased by:-

a)      Thiopentone

b)      Halothane

c)      Enflurane

d)      Trichlcroethylene

e)   PEEP


The following penicillins are resistant to penicillinase

a)      Methicillin

b)      Cloxacillin

c)      Amoxycillin

d)      Phenoxymethylpenicillin

e)      Carbenicillin






Pupillary dilatation is caused by:-

a)      Cocaine

b)      Ganglion blockers

c)      Alpha-1 agonists

d)      Anticholinesterases

e)      Codeine



a)      Potentates neuromuscular blockade

b)      Causes hypotension

c)      Is metabolised by esterases

d)   Is a ganglionic blocker

e)   Is useful in controlled hypotension



a)      Causes on increase in oesophageal barrier pressure

b)      Increases Prolactin

c)      Causes hirsutism

d)      Increases 5 Ht

e)   Is more potent then Granisetron in preventing  PONV







a.)        Is essential for skeletal development

b)         Increases oxygen consumption

c)         Stimulates T.S.H secretion

d)         Depresses cholesterol synthesis

e)         Is bound to plasma proteins in the blood


The following drugs relax uterus

a)      Adrenaline

b)      Isoprenaline

c)      Ketamine

d)      Halothane

e)      Glyceryl trinitrate



a)      Is an anticonvulsant

b)      Releases dopamine from the substantia gelatinosa

c)      Has actions on the limbic system

d)      Has tranquillising properties

e)      Is metabolised to oxazepam in the lung






Increase of pH of the urine increases  the excretion of :-





Hyoscine hydrobromide


Acute intermittent Porphyria may be precipitated by:-







The second member of each pair antagonises the first:-

Pentazocine ----- nalorphine

Warfarin --------- protamine

Pancuronium ----- Neostigmine

Carbachol --------- propranolol

Insulin ------------ glucagon






Panhypopituiterism in a 35 year old woman is suggested by:-

a)      Galactorrhoea.

b)      Hyperoyrexial apisodes

c)      Scanty pubic and Axillary hair

d)      Impaired excretion of a water ---------

e)      Hot flushes.


Severe salicylate intoxication may produce:-

a)      Metabolic acidosis

b)      Tinnitus

c)      Hawmolysis

d)      Hypoprothombinaemia

e)      Thrombocytopaenia


The following drugs interfere with muscular contraction by interfering with calcium transport.

a)      Diltiazem

b)      Atracurium besylate

c)      Dantrolene

d)      Hydralazine

e)      GTN






The Sulphonylureas

a)      Decrease peripheral glucose utilisation

b)      May cause hypoglycaemia in normal people

c)      May cause lactic acidosis

d)      Are effective in pancreatectomized patients

e)      Have a half life fo more then 10 hours.


The following  drugs show zero order kinetics at normal therapeutic concentrations.

a)      Ethyl alcohol

b)      Tubocurarine

c)      Phenytoin

d)      Acetylsalicylic acid

e)      Methohexitone


The following drugs lower gastric barrier pressure

a)      Suxamethonium

b)      Adrenaline

c)      Enflurane

d)      Atropine

e)      Secretin






The following drugs cross the placenta easily:-

a)      Pethidine

b)      Suxamethonium

c)      Glycopyrrolate

d)      Insulin

e)      Warfarin



a)      Is a partial agonist

b)      Is more potent than morphine

c)      Is a respiratory depressant

d)      Is antagonized completely by naloxone

e)      Has been used in sequential analgesia.



a)      Has a molecular weight fo 197.2

b)      Its molecule contains four fluorine atoms

c)      Has a boiling point of 50 degrees centigrade

d)      Has a MAC of 1.50

e)      Has a SVP of 220 mmHg  at 20 degrees centigrade






 Theophylline may  cause:-

a)      An increase in cardiac output

b)      An increase in GFR

c)      An increase in alveolar dead space

d)      Feelings of anxiety

e)      Life-threatening ventricular arrythmias



a)      May cause renal failure

b)      May cause an increase in circulating volume greater than the volume infused

c)      May cause rouleux formation and sludging

d)      May cause anaphylaxis

e)      May decrease blood viscosity


A substance with a volume of distribution the same as plasma and an elimination half life of 2 hours

a)      Is highly protein bound

b)      Is fat soluble

c)      Is excreted by active renal tubular secretion

d)      Is excreted unchanged by the kidney

e)      May be a quaternary ammonium compound






Thiazide diuretics may cause:-

a)      Hyponatraemia

b)      Hypochloraemic alkalosis

c)      Hyperuricaemia

d)      Hyperglycaemia

e)      Hyperkalaemia


Sodium Nitro Prusude toxicity:-

a)      Is not dose related

b)      May be due to a deficiency of live rhodanase

c)      Is due to thiocyanate accumulation

d)      Is due to cyanide ion accumulation

e)      Is worse in patients with B12 deficiency.



a)      Has a shorter half life than morphine

b)      Has a shorter duration than morphine

c)      Has active metabolites

d)      Has metabolites with analeptic activity only

e)      Has local anaesthetic action.







a)      Causes a rise in intraocular pressure

b)      May be antagonised by nalbuphine

c)      Relaxes the jejunum

d)   Is less emitogenic than Fentanyl

e)   has a longer half life than naloxone



a)      Causes a fall in total peripheral resistance

b)      Increase cardiac output

c)      Is useful in raising cardiac output in arrhythmias

d)      Relaxes uterine smooth muscle

e)      Is a bronchodilator


Glyceryl trinitrate

a)      Raises central venous pressure

b)      Raises blood pressure

c)      Is metabolised to nitric oxide

d)      Has high first pass metabolism

e)      Causes meningeal vasodilation






The ideal intravenous anaesthetic agent

a)      Is stable in aqueous solution

b)      Crosses the blood brain barrier

c)      Is completely metabolised in 1 hour

d)      Has a pKa around 7.4

e)      Is excreted unchanged



a)      Is formulated in propylene glycol

b)      Reduces total peripheral resistance

c)      Is metabolised to glucuronide and sulphonides

d)      Undergoes rapid hepatic metabolism

e)   Is 2, 4 Di-iso Propyl Phenol


The following are enzyme inhibitors

a)      Aminophylline

b)      Enoximone

c)      Vecuronium

d)      Edrophonium

e)   Atropine






The following are used to treat raised intracranial pressure

a)      Dexamethasone

b)      Mannitol

c)      Bumetanide

d)      Isoflurane

e)   Ketaamine


The following increase intra-ocular pressure

a)      Suxamethonium

b)      Ketamine

c)   Hypoventilation

d)   Hypoxia

e)   Halothane


The following cannot be used with MAOIs

a)      Morphine

b)      Pethidine

c)      Amphetamine

d)      Phenylephrine

e)   Lithium






The following are safe to use in Porphyria

a)      Ketamine

b)      Atomidate

c)      Diazepam

d)   Etomidate

e)   Di-Iso Propyl Phenol               



a)      Is an anticonvulsant

b)      Induces liver enzymes

c)      Is a benzodiazepine

d)      Is used to treat trigeminal neuralgia

e)   used to treat reflex sympathetic dystrophy



a)      Has the same action as growth hormone on blood glucose concentration

b)      Increases protein catabolism

c)      Increase fat anabolism

d)      Prevents potassium uptake into cells

e)   Antagonised by Glucagon







a)      Increases physiological dead space

b)      Decreases lower oesophageal sphincter tone

c)      Decreases H+ secretion in the stomach

d)      Decreases exocrine secretions in he body

e)      Causes mydriasis


The duration of action of an intravenous anaesthetic agent will be affected by:-

a)      PH of the anaesthetic solution

b)      Lean body mass

c)      Renal blood flow

d)      Total blood volume

e)      Administration of a pre-med



a)      Crosses the blood brain barrier

b)      Reverses the CNS effects of tricyclic overdose

c)      Is contraindicated in atropine poisoning

d)      Can be used to reverse a depolarising neuromuscular blockade

e)   Is the structural isomer of Neostigmine






The bio-availability of the following orally administered drugs is over 50%

a)      Morphine

b)      Propranolol

c)      Methadone

d)      Atenolol

e)      Lignocaine


The output of acid urine

a)      Is controlled by aldosterone

b)      Varies with the ammonium output

c)      Varies with plasma inorganic phosphate

d)      Is reduced by inhibitors of carbonic anhydrase

e)      Is reduced in chloride depletion


The binding of a drug to plasma albumin

a)      Is usually covalent in nature

b)      Is markedly different in arterial and venous blood

c)      Occurs only after i.v. administration

d)      Prevents rapid renal glomerular filtration of the drug

e)      Reduces renal tubular secretion of the drug






The blood-brain barrier

a)      Is anatomically situated at the arachnoid villi

b)      Is less permeable in the newborn

c)      Only permits free passage of lipid-soluble solutes

d)      Does not permit free passage of organic anions

e)      Has similar functional characteristics to a cell membrane


Gastric absorption of weak acids

a)      Proceeds at a rate directly proportional to pH of gastric juice

b)      Is faster than that of weak bases

c)      Involves diffusion of he un-ionised acid across the gastric mucosa

d)      Is reduced in achlorhydria

e)      Occurs during gastrin- but not histamine- induced gastric acid secretion


Thiopentone is a “short-lasting” barbiturate because

a)      It is metabolised rapidly by brain and liver

b)      It is rapidly distributed throughout the body

c)      It is bound to the “sleep centre” in the brain

d)      It is administrated by i.v. injection

e)      It induces tachyphylaxis







a)      Is found in plasma

b)      Is inhibited by pilocarpine

c)      Will hydrolyse dibucaine

d)      Is present in high concentrations in he placenta

e)      Hydrolyses acetylcholine faster than choline esters



a)      Is found in plasma

b)      Is inhibited by malathion

c)      Is reduced during pregnancy

d)      Is stimulated by fluoride ions

e)      Is responsible for the inactivation fo succinylcholine


Release of transmitter caused by nerve stimulation is inhibited by:-

a)      Desmethylimipramine

b)      Botulinus toxin

c)      Tyramine

d)      Hyoscine

e)      Potassium ions






The following may be administered via the tracheal mucosa:-

a)      Lignocaine.

b)      Adrenaline

c)      Atropine

d)      Calcium chloride

e)      Verapamil.


The following may be used to control the ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation:-

a)      Ouinidine

b)      Eotalol

c)      Amiodarone

d)      Digoxin with verapamil

e)      Atenolol with verapamil


Among side effects of chlorpromazine are:-

a)      Diarrhoea

b)      Dose related parkinsonism

c)      Hypotension

d)      Bradycardia

e)      Hyperthermia






The following are features of drugs metabolism:-

a)      In drugs intoxication haemodialysis is more likely to lower plasma concentration of he drug if its volume of distribution is large.

b)      The half life is the time taken for the clinical effects to be reduced by half.

c)      First pass metabolism of an orally administered drug refers to immedia – metabolism in he gut wall or liver.

d)      The metabolism of Hydralazine is influenced by the acetylator status of the patient

e)      Drugs with a short half life require a loading dose ot obtain a rapid therapeutic concentration.


When L-DOPA is used to treat Parkinson’s disease it:-

a)      Has useful anti-emetic activity

b)      May be combined with carbidopa to reduce peripheral metabolism of L-DOPA

c)      Is converted into a false transmitter

d)      Can cause psychotic behaviour

e)      Is activity taken up by dopamine neurones in the CNS


The following drugs by affecting dopaminergic mechanisms can have the actions indicated:-

a)      Neuroleptics can induce acute dyskinesias

b)      Reserpine can alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease

c)      Chlorpromazine can bring about tradive dyskinesias

d)      Chlorpromazine can be used to treat tradive dyskinesias

e)      (+) – amphetamine has anorectic activity



Blockade of dopamine receptors:-

a)      Can be an effective treatment for psychotic conditions

b)      Occurs with haloperidol

c)      Is an effective treatment of depression

d)      Can cause a Parkinson –like syndrome

e)      Can lead to infertility


The following acts as dopamine-receptor agonists:-

a)      Metoclopramide

b)      Bromocryptine

c)      Fluphenazine decanoate

d)      Amantidine

e)      Benztropine



a)      Has a high therapeutic ratio

b)      Can induce microsomal enzymes

c)      Can exhibit first order elimination kinetics

d)      Can exhibit zero order elimination kinetics

e)      Exhibits a constant half time over its whole therapeutic dose range






The following drugs can cause dangerous drug interactions by inducing enzymes which metabolise drugs.

a)      Diazepam

b)      Phenytoin

c)      Sodium valproate

d)      Amylobarbitone

e)      Isocarboxazid



a)      Is a direct dopamine receptor agonist

b)      Can cause infertility

c)      Can have its actions reversed by chlorpromazine

d)      Has useful anti emetic properties

e)      Can cause psychotic reactions


A highly ionised drug:-

a)      Is well absorbed from the intestine

b)      Is excreted mainly in the kidney

c)      Crosses the placental barrier easily

d)      Is reabsorbed from the renal tubule

e)      Is highly protein bound






Duration of action of barbiturates is decreased by:-

a)      Substitution of sulphur for oxygen in the 2 position of the ring.

b)      Methylation in the 1 or 3 position of the ring

c)      Formation of sodium salts

d)      Branching of carbon chain in 5 position of the ring

e)      Desaturation of carbon chain in 5 position of the ring


Which of the following agents cross the blood/ brain barrier:-

a)      Tubocurarine

b)      Hexamethonium

c)      Lignocaine

d)      Hyoscine hydrobromide

e)   Neostigmine


A 2.5% solution of thiopentone:-

a)      Has a ph of 6.8

b)      Is less than 50% protein bound when given intravenously

c)      Is metabolised at a rate of 205 per hour

d)      Is an analgesic

e)      Is a sulphur analogue of pentobarbitone






Methaemoglobinaemia can result from deliberate or accidental exposure to:-

a)      Phenacetin

b)      Methylene blue

c)      Prilocaine

d)      Paracetamol

e)      Paraldehyde


Phenobarbitone is:-

a)      A weak acid

b)      More lipophilic than thiopentone

c)      An enzyme inducer

d)      Used as an intravenous general anaesthetic

e)      Used as an anticonvulsant



a)      Forms sodium salts

b)      Has a long elimination half-time

c)      Has a short duration of action

d)      Activity is terminated by redistribution

e)      Is an intravenous general anaesthetic






The following are recommended as hypnotics:-

a)      Clonazepam

b)      Nitrazepam

c)      Chlorpromazine

d)      Thiopentone

e)      Temazepam


Intravenous diazepam

a)      Is used in status epilepticus

b)      Is used to induce general anaesthesia

c)      Causes amnesia

d)      Can cause venous thrombosis

e)      Is useful for endoscopy


The elimination half-time of diazepam is:-

a)      Longer than that of its desmethyl metabolite

b)      Such that diazepam is a useful hypnotic

c)      Longer than that of Temazepam

d)      Long because it has an active metabolite

e)      Such that it should not be given by i.m. injection.